This comes from a Theology forum I am part of. It was asked generically in a thread I started.
Quote from: Chaplain Mark Schmidt on November 04, 2020,
11:14:51 pm
Can I ask something,
Apostle Thomas was one of the three known apostles to be literate and was able
to read and write. So if the evidence that has slowly emerged that the
Gospel of Thomas actually originate from his writings while he was with Jesus,
does that not mean then that they become the inspired words of God or at least
inspire of Jesus?
I am trying to figure out why it would or would not become inspired.
Now see I agree with this logic, but those that decided what was divinely
inspired 1500 plus years ago, did not know nor have the additional information
we now have. Should it be rethought and considered? I believe
so. The issue is that it would take the Vatican, Lutherans,
Anglicans, Episcopalians all the rest to reconsider its inclusion. The
argument will be how do we know we have all of Thomas's writings? How can
we include something that might not be complete? Those are valid
concerns.
I think it deserves deep consideration. If you take the time to read it
then cross-reference the statements you will find them all stated in the
Gospels and other books of the New Testament but without all the fluff and
storytelling around Jesus' statements. As you noted, Thomas was an
educated and literate man. But he also was a very no-nonsense type
of person. Think of Dragnet and the statement "Just the
Facts" So his writings were just the statements he felt were
important and impactful. He did not waste time and energy on
writing the story around the statement.
So in essence, it is divinely inspired as all he writes is in books deemed
divinely inspired, but with all the story around them. It is also why he
had doubts when he was told of the risen Christ. His nature was to prove
it to me, give me the facts. Back as the story about him shows, once he
knew it was him, he was all in.
I hope that helps to hear my viewpoint and understanding.
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